NEET (UG) 2025 · previous year paper

NEET (UG) 2025

170 questions with the verified answer key. Open any question for its step-by-step solution.

  1. Question 1Physics· Mechanical Properties of Matter

    Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at x=Lx=L and can be taken to be very wide in the zz direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension S and density ρ\rho, the liquid surface makes angle θ0(θ0≪1)\theta_{0}\left(\theta_{0} \ll 1\right) with the xx-axis at x=Lx=L. If y(x)y(x) is the height of the surface then the equation for y(x)\mathrm{y}(\mathrm{x}) is: (take θ(x)=sin⁡θ(x)=tan⁡θ(x)=dydx,g\theta(x)=\sin \theta(x)=\tan \theta(x)=\frac{d y}{d x}, g is the acceleration due to gravity)

    Question 1 figure
    1. Option A:

      d2ydx2=ρgSx\frac{\mathrm{d}^{2} \mathrm{y}}{\mathrm{dx}^{2}}=\frac{\rho \mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{S}} \mathrm{x}

    2. Option B:

      d2ydx2=ρgSy\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}=\frac{\rho g}{S} y

    3. Option C:

      d2ydx2=ρgS\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{\rho g}{S}}

    4. Option D:

      dydx=ρgSx\frac{d y}{d x}=\sqrt{\frac{\rho g}{S}} x

  2. Question 2Physics· Geometrical Optics

    A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm , eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40 cm . If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm , the magnification in the microscope is :

    1. Option A:

      100

    2. Option B:

      125

    3. Option C:

      150

    4. Option D:

      250

  3. Question 3Physics· Moving Charges and Magnetic Field

    An electron (mass 9×10−31 kg9 \times 10^{-31} \, \mathrm{kg} and charge 1.6×10−19 C1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \mathrm{C}) moving with speed c/100c/100 (cc = speed of light) is injected into a magnetic field B⃗\vec{B} of magnitude 9×10−4 T9 \times 10^{-4} \, \mathrm{T} perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply a uniform electric field E⃗\vec{E} together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light c=3×108 m s−1c = 3 \times 10^8 \, \mathrm{m\,s}^{-1})

    1. Option A:

      E⃗\vec{E} is perpendicular to B⃗\vec{B} and its magnitude is 27×104 V m−127 \times 10^4 \, \mathrm{V\,m}^{-1}

    2. Option B:

      E⃗\vec{E} is perpendicular to B⃗\vec{B} and its magnitude is 27×102 V m−127 \times 10^2 \, \mathrm{V\,m}^{-1}

    3. Option C:

      E⃗\vec{E} is parallel to B⃗\vec{B} and its magnitude is 27×102 V m−127 \times 10^2 \, \mathrm{V\,m}^{-1}

    4. Option D:

      E⃗\vec{E} is parallel to B⃗\vec{B} and its magnitude is 27×104 V m−127 \times 10^4 \, \mathrm{V\,m}^{-1}

  4. Question 4Physics· Friction

    There are two inclined surface of equal length (L) and same angle of inclination 45∘45^{\circ} with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction (μk)\left(\mu_{k}\right) between the object and the rough surface is close to:

    1. Option A:

      0.25

    2. Option B:

      0.4

    3. Option C:

      0.5

    4. Option D:

      0.75

  5. Question 5Physics· Work, Power & Energy

    The kinetic energies of two similar cars AA and BB are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying breaks, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m . If FA\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{A}} and FB\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{B}} are the forces applied by the breaks on cars A and B , respectively, then the ratio FA/FB\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{A}} / \mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{B}} is :

    1. Option A:

      32\frac{3}{2}

    2. Option B:

      23\frac{2}{3}

    3. Option C:

      13\frac{1}{3}

    4. Option D:

      12\frac{1}{2}

  6. Question 6Physics· Horizontal Circular Motion

    A bob of heavy mass mm is suspended by a light string of length ll. The bob is given a horizontal velocity v0\mathrm{v}_{0} as shown in figure. If the string gets slack at some point P making an angle θ\theta from the horizontal, the ratio of the speed v of the bob at point P to its initial speed v0\mathrm{v}_{0} is :

    figure

    1. Option A:

      (sin⁡θ)12(\sin \theta)^{\frac{1}{2}}

    2. Option B:

      (12+3sin⁡θ)12\left(\frac{1}{2+3 \sin \theta}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}

    3. Option C:

      (cos⁡θ2+3sin⁡θ)12\left(\frac{\cos \theta}{2+3 \sin \theta}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}

    4. Option D:

      (sin⁡θ2+3sin⁡θ)12\left(\frac{\sin \theta}{2+3 \sin \theta}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}

  7. Question 7Physics· Semiconductor and Electronic Devices

    The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a _____\_\_\_\_\_ gate.

    Question 7 figure
    1. Option A:

      AND

    2. Option B:

      NAND

    3. Option C:

      OR

    4. Option D:

      NOR

  8. Question 8Physics· Electrostatics

    The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by Ez=60cos⁡(5x+1.5×109t)V/mE_{z}=60 \cos \left(5 x+1.5 \times 10^{9} t\right) \mathrm{V} / \mathrm{m}. Then

    expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field) :

    1. Option A:

      By=2×10−7cos⁡(5x+1.5×109t)TB_{y}=2 \times 10^{-7} \cos \left(5 x+1.5 \times 10^{9} t\right) T

    2. Option B:

      Bx=2×10−7cos⁡(5x+1.5×109t)TB_{x}=2 \times 10^{-7} \cos \left(5 x+1.5 \times 10^{9} t\right) T

    3. Option C:

      Bz=60cos⁡(5x+1.5×109t)TB_{z}=60 \cos \left(5 x+1.5 \times 10^{9} t\right) T

    4. Option D:

      By=60sin⁡(5x+1.5×109t)TB_{y}=60 \sin \left(5 x+1.5 \times 10^{9} t\right) T

  9. Question 9Physics· Newton's Laws of Motion

    A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m . The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m . The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take g=9.8 m/s2\mathrm{g}=9.8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^{2} )

    1. Option A:

      21 Ns

    2. Option B:

      7 Ns

    3. Option C:

      0

    4. Option D:

      84 Ns

  10. Question 10Physics· Electromagnetic Induction

    AB is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference " VA−VB\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{A}}-\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{B}} ", at the instant when current i=2 A\mathrm{i}=2 \mathrm{~A} and is increasing at a rate of 1amp/1 \mathrm{amp} / second is :

    Question 10 figure
    1. Option A:

      5 volt

    2. Option B:

      6 volt

    3. Option C:

      9 volt

    4. Option D:

      10 volt

  11. Question 11Physics· Moving Charges and Magnetic Field

    A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:21: 2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be

    1. Option A:

      1:41: 4

    2. Option B:

      1:21: 2

    3. Option C:

      2:12: 1

    4. Option D:

      4:14: 1

  12. Question 12Physics· Geometrical Optics

    In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power (P) and magnification ( mm ) for each lens will be, respectively

    1. Option A:

      4P4 P and 4m4 m

    2. Option B:

      P4P^{4} and 4m4 m

    3. Option C:

      4P4 P and m4m^{4}

    4. Option D:

      P4P^{4} and m4m^{4}

  13. Question 13Physics· Kinetic Theory of Gases

    An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature 27∘C27^{\circ} \mathrm{C}. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to

    1. Option A:

      0.125 kg

    2. Option B:

      0.144 kg

    3. Option C:

      0.116 kg

    4. Option D:

      0.156 kg

  14. Question 14Physics· Motion in one Dimension

    In some appropriate units, time ( tt ) and position (x) relation of a moving particle is given by t=x2+xt=x^{2}+x. The acceleration of the particle is

    1. Option A:

      −2(x+2)3-\frac{2}{(x+2)^{3}}

    2. Option B:

      −2(2x+1)3-\frac{2}{(2 x+1)^{3}}

    3. Option C:

      +2(x+1)3+\frac{2}{(x+1)^{3}}

    4. Option D:

      +22x+1+\frac{2}{2 x+1}

  15. Question 15Physics· Alternating Current

    To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of 20Ω20\Omega, a capacitor of reactance 25Ω25\Omega and an inductor of reactance 45Ω45\Omega are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively-

    1. Option A:

      7.8 A and 30∘30^{\circ}

    2. Option B:

      7.8 A and 45∘45^{\circ}

    3. Option C:

      15.6 A and 30∘30^\circ

    4. Option D:

      15.6 A and 45∘45^\circ

  16. Question 16Physics· Rotational Dynamics

    The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.

    1. Option A:

      100 days

    2. Option B:

      105 days

    3. Option C:

      115 days

    4. Option D:

      108 days

  17. Question 17Physics· Atomic Physics

    A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field BB states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is n(h/e)n(h / e) where nn is an integer, hh is Planck's constant and ee is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be ( mm is the mass of the electron)

    1. Option A:

      heπm\frac{h e}{\pi m}

    2. Option B:

      he2πm\frac{h e}{2 \pi m}

    3. Option C:

      heBπm\frac{h e B}{\pi m}

    4. Option D:

      heB2πm\frac{h e B}{2 \pi m}

  18. Question 18Physics· Heat Transfer

    Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity 2 K while that in the middle has thermal conductivity KK. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature 3T3 T and the right end at TT. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is T1T_{1} and that at the right junction is T2T_{2}. The ratio T1/T2T_{1} / T_{2} is

    Question 18 figure
    1. Option A:

      32\frac{3}{2}

    2. Option B:

      43\frac{4}{3}

    3. Option C:

      53\frac{5}{3}

    4. Option D:

      54\frac{5}{4}

  19. Question 19Physics· Capacitors and R-C Circuits

    The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by d. Two slabs of different dielectric constant K1K_{1} and K2K_{2} with thickness 38d\frac{3}{8} d and d2\frac{d}{2}, respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates. (If K1=1.25K2K_{1}=1.25 K_{2}, the value of K1K_{1} is :

    1. Option A:

      2.66

    2. Option B:

      2.33

    3. Option C:

      1.6

    4. Option D:

      1.33

  20. Question 20Physics· Motion in Plane

    Two cities XX and YY are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every TT min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h\mathrm{km} / \mathrm{h} in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.

    1. Option A:

      9 min,40 km/h9 \mathrm{~min}, 40 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}

    2. Option B:

      25 min,100 km/h25 \mathrm{~min}, 100 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}

    3. Option C:

      10 min,90 km/h10 \mathrm{~min}, 90 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}

    4. Option D:

      15 min,120 km/h15 \mathrm{~min}, 120 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}

  21. Question 21Physics· Friction

    A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 60∘60^{\circ} with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (take g=10 m/s2\mathrm{g}=10 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^{2} )

    1. Option A:

      100 N

    2. Option B:

      1003 N100 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~N}

    3. Option C:

      200 N

    4. Option D:

      2003 N200 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~N}

  22. Question 22Physics· Electrostatics

    A balloon is made of a material of surface tension SS and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in it) has small area AA. It is filled with a gas of density ρ\rho and takes a spherical shape of radius RR. When the gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius changes from RR to 0 (zero) in time TT. If the speed v(r)v(r) of gas coming out of the balloon depends on rr as rar^{a} and T∝SαAβργRδT \propto S^{\alpha} A^{\beta} \rho^{\gamma} R^{\delta} then

    1. Option A:

      a=12,α=12,β=−1,γ=+1,δ=32a=\frac{1}{2}, \alpha=\frac{1}{2}, \beta=-1, \gamma=+1, \delta=\frac{3}{2}

    2. Option B:

      a=−12,α=−12,β=−1,γ=−12,δ=52a=-\frac{1}{2}, \alpha=-\frac{1}{2}, \beta=-1, \gamma=-\frac{1}{2}, \delta=\frac{5}{2}

    3. Option C:

      a=−12,α=−12,β=−1,γ=12,δ=72a=-\frac{1}{2}, \alpha=-\frac{1}{2}, \beta=-1, \gamma=\frac{1}{2}, \delta=\frac{7}{2}

    4. Option D:

      a=12,α=12,β=−12,γ=12,δ=72a=\frac{1}{2}, \alpha=\frac{1}{2}, \beta=-\frac{1}{2}, \gamma=\frac{1}{2}, \delta=\frac{7}{2}

  23. Question 23Physics· Units, Dimensions & Error Analysis

    Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier callipers. Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.) The least division in the M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at x=0.1 cm\mathrm{x}=0.1 \mathrm{~cm} when the jaws of Vernier callipers are closed. If the main scale reading for the diameter is M=5 cmM=5 \mathrm{~cm} and the number of coinciding vernier division is 8, the measured diameter after zero error correction, is

    1. Option A:

      5.18 cm

    2. Option B:

      5.08 cm

    3. Option C:

      4.98 cm

    4. Option D:

      5.00 cm

  24. Question 24Physics· Electromagnetic Waves

    A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is :

    1. Option A:

      zero at all places

    2. Option B:

      constant between the plates and zero outside the plates

    3. Option C:

      non-zero everywhere with maximum at the imaginary cylindrical surface connecting peripheries of the plates

    4. Option D:

      zero between the plates and non-zero outside

  25. Question 25Physics· Wave Optics

    An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle. Then -

    1. Option A:

      reflected light is completely polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 60∘60^{\circ}

    2. Option B:

      reflected light is partially polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 30∘30^{\circ}

    3. Option C:

      both reflected and transmitted light are perfectly polarized with angles of reflection and refraction close to 60∘60^{\circ} and 30∘30^{\circ}, respectively

    4. Option D:

      transmitted light is completely polarized with angle of refraction close to 30∘30^{\circ}

  26. Question 26Physics· Electrostatics

    Two identical charged conducting spheres AA and BB have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is F. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as :

    1. Option A:

      3F5\frac{3 F}{5}

    2. Option B:

      2F3\frac{2 F}{3}

    3. Option C:

      F2\frac{F}{2}

    4. Option D:

      3F8\frac{3 F}{8}

  27. Question 27Physics· Kinetic Theory of Gases

    A container has two chambers of volumes V1=2V_{1}=2 litres and V2=3V_{2}=3 litres separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contains n1=5n_{1}=5 and n2=4n_{2}=4 moles of ideal gas at pressures p1=1 atmp_{1}=1 \mathrm{~atm} and p2=2 atmp_{2}=2 \mathrm{~atm}, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of :

    1. Option A:

      1.3 atm

    2. Option B:

      1.6 atm

    3. Option C:

      1.4 atm

    4. Option D:

      1.8 atm

  28. Question 28Physics· Atomic Physics

    A particle of mass mm is moving around the origin with a constant force FF pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius rr of the nth n^{\text {th }} orbit and the particle's speed vv in the orbit depend on nn as

    1. Option A:

      r∝n1/3;v∝n1/3r \propto n^{1 / 3} ; v \propto n^{1 / 3}

    2. Option B:

      r∝n1/3;v∝n2/3r \propto n^{1 / 3} ; v \propto n^{2 / 3}

    3. Option C:

      r∝n2/3;v∝n1/3r \propto n^{2 / 3} ; v \propto n^{1 / 3}

    4. Option D:

      r∝n4/3;v∝n−1/3r \propto n^{4 / 3} ; v \propto n^{-1 / 3}

  29. Question 29Physics· Gravitation

    The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury ?

    1. Option A:

      88 earth days

    2. Option B:

      225 earth days

    3. Option C:

      172 earth days

    4. Option D:

      124 earth days

  30. Question 30Physics· Gravitation

    A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is :

    1. Option A:

      16 N

    2. Option B:

      27 N

    3. Option C:

      32 N

    4. Option D:

      36 N

  31. Question 31Physics· Current Electricity

    A wire of resistance RR is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is :

    1. Option A:

      R64\frac{\mathrm{R}}{64}

    2. Option B:

      R32\frac{\mathrm{R}}{32}

    3. Option C:

      R16\frac{\mathrm{R}}{16}

    4. Option D:

      R8\frac{R}{8}

  32. Question 32Physics· Atomic Physics

    De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the n=2n=2 state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius =0.052 nm=0.052 \mathrm{~nm} )

    1. Option A:

      0.067 nm

    2. Option B:

      0.67 nm

    3. Option C:

      1.67 nm

    4. Option D:

      2.67 nm

  33. Question 33Physics· Electrostatics

    An electric dipole with dipole moment 5×10−6Cm5 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{Cm} is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude 4×105 N/C4 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{C} The dipole is then rotated through an angle of 60∘60^{\circ} with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is :

    1. Option A:

      0.8 J

    2. Option B:

      1.0 J

    3. Option C:

      1.2 J

    4. Option D:

      1.5 J

  34. Question 34Physics· Current Electricity

    A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is :-

    figure

    1. Option A:

      1.5 A

    2. Option B:

      2.0 A

    3. Option C:

      2.5 A

    4. Option D:

      3.0 A

  35. Question 35Physics· Atomic Physics

    A photon and an electron (mass mm ) have the same energy EE. The ratio ( λphoton /λelectron \lambda_{\text {photon }} / \lambda_{\text {electron }} ) of their de Broglie wavelengths is: (c is the speed of light)

    1. Option A:

      E2m\sqrt{\frac{E}{2m}}

    2. Option B:

      c2mEc \sqrt{2mE}

    3. Option C:

      c2mEc \sqrt{\frac{2m}{E}}

    4. Option D:

      1cE2m\frac{1}{c} \sqrt{\frac{E}{2m}}

  36. Question 36Physics· Rotational Dynamics

    A sphere of radius RR is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius 2R2 R as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis is:

    Question 36 figure
    1. Option A:

      78\frac{7}{8}

    2. Option B:

      740\frac{7}{40}

    3. Option C:

      757\frac{7}{57}

    4. Option D:

      764\frac{7}{64}

  37. Question 37Physics· Semiconductor and Electronic Devices

    A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes (D1)\left(D_{1}\right) and (D2)\left(D_{2}\right) is shown in the figure. If input supply voltage Vin =220sin⁡(100πt)\mathrm{V}_{\text {in }}=220 \sin (100 \pi \mathrm{t}) volt, then at t=15msec\mathrm{t}=15 \mathrm{msec}

    Question 37 figure
    1. Option A:

      D1D_{1} is forward biased, D2D_{2} is reverse biased

    2. Option B:

      D1D_{1} is reverse biased, D2D_{2} is forward biased

    3. Option C:

      D1D_{1} and D2D_{2} both are forward biased

    4. Option D:

      D1D_{1} and D2D_{2} both are reverse biased

  38. Question 38Physics· Thermodynamics

    Two gases AA and BB are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius rAr_{A} and rBr_{B}, respectively. On supplying an equal amount of heat to both the systems reversibly under constant pressure, the pistons of gas AA and BB are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm , respectively. If the change in their internal energy is the same, then the ratio rArB\frac{r_{A}}{r_{B}} is equal to

    1. Option A:

      43\frac{4}{3}

    2. Option B:

      34\frac{3}{4}

    3. Option C:

      23\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}

    4. Option D:

      32\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}

  39. Question 39Physics· Units, Dimensions & Error Analysis

    A physical quantity PP is related to four observations a,b,ca, b, c and dd as follows :

    P=a3b2/cdP=a^{3} b^{2} / c \sqrt{d}

    The percentage errors of measurement in a,b,ca, b, c and dd are 1%,3%,2%1 \%, 3 \%, 2 \% and 4%4 \% respectively. The percentage error in the quantity PP is

    1. Option A:

      10%10 \%

    2. Option B:

      2%2 \%

    3. Option C:

      13%13 \%

    4. Option D:

      15%15 \%

  40. Question 40Physics· Wave Optics

    The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at 22.5∘22.5^{\circ} from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is ( I0\mathrm{I}_{0} is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):

    1. Option A:

      I02\frac{\mathrm{I}_{0}}{2}

    2. Option B:

      I04\frac{I_{0}}{4}

    3. Option C:

      I08\frac{\mathrm{I}_{0}}{8}

    4. Option D:

      I016\frac{\mathrm{I}_{0}}{16}

  41. Question 41Physics· Simple Harmonic Motion

    Two identical point masses PP and QQ, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants k1\mathrm{k}_{1} and k2\mathrm{k}_{2}, respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio ( AQ/APA_{Q} / A_{P} ) of the amplitude AQA_{Q} of mass QQ to the amplitude APA_{P} of mass PP is :

    1. Option A:

      k2k1\frac{\mathrm{k}_{2}}{\mathrm{k}_{1}}

    2. Option B:

      k1k2\frac{\mathrm{k}_{1}}{\mathrm{k}_{2}}

    3. Option C:

      k2k1\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{k}_{2}}{\mathrm{k}_{1}}}

    4. Option D:

      k1k2\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{k}_{1}}{\mathrm{k}_{2}}}

  42. Question 42Physics· Sound Waves

    A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency ff in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to :

    1. Option A:

      f2\frac{f}{2}

    2. Option B:

      ff

    3. Option C:

      3f2\frac{3 f}{2}

    4. Option D:

      2f2 f

  43. Question 43Chemistry· Structure of Atom

    The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes n=2→n=3\mathrm{n}=2 \rightarrow \mathrm{n}=3 and n=4→n=6\mathrm{n}=4 \rightarrow \mathrm{n}=6 transitions, respectively, is

    1. Option A:

      136\frac{1}{36}

    2. Option B:

      116\frac{1}{16}

    3. Option C:

      19\frac{1}{9}

    4. Option D:

      14\frac{1}{4}

  44. Question 44Chemistry· Periodicity of Elements and Periodic Properties

    Which of the following statements are true?

    A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point.

    B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same.

    C. Ar,K+,Cl−,Ca2+\mathrm{Ar}, \mathrm{K}^{+}, \mathrm{Cl}^{-}, \mathrm{Ca}^{2+}, and S2−\mathrm{S}^{2-} are all isoelectronic species.

    D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of Na,Mg,Al\mathrm{Na}, \mathrm{Mg}, \mathrm{Al}, and Si is Si>Al>Mg>Na\mathrm{Si}>\mathrm{Al}>\mathrm{Mg}>\mathrm{Na}.

    E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. Option A:

      A, B and E only

    2. Option B:

      C and E only

    3. Option C:

      C and D only

    4. Option D:

      A, C and E only

  45. Question 45Chemistry· Practical Inorganic chemistry (Qualitative Analysis)

    Match List I with List II \begin{center}

    List I (Ion)List II (Group Number in Cation Analysis)
    A. Co2+\mathrm{Co}^{2+}I. Group-I
    B. Mg2+\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}II. Group-III
    C. Pb2+\mathrm{Pb}^{2+}III. Group-IV
    D. Al3+\mathrm{Al}^{3+}IV. Group-VI

    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    2. Option B:

      A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    3. Option C:

      A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    4. Option D:

      A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

  46. Question 46Chemistry· Structure of Atom

    Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of He+\mathrm{He}^{+}and Li2+\mathrm{Li}^{2+} are

    [Given RH=2.18×10−18 J,a0=52.9pm\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{H}}=2.18 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{~J}, \mathrm{a}_{0}=52.9 \mathrm{pm} ]

    1. Option A:

      En(Li2+)=−19.62×10−18 J\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{Li}^{2+}\right)=-19.62 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{~J};r_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{Li}^{2+}\right)=17.6 \mathrm{pm}$$\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{He}^{+}\right)=-8.72 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{~J};rn(He+)=26.4pm\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{He}^{+}\right)=26.4 \mathrm{pm}

    2. Option B:

      En(Li2+)=−8.72×10−18 J\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{Li}^{2+}\right)=-8.72 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{~J};r_{n}\left(\mathrm{Li}^{2+}\right)=26.4 \mathrm{pm}$$\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{He}^{+}\right)=-19.62 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{~J};rn(He+)=17.6pm\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{He}^{+}\right)=17.6 \mathrm{pm}

    3. Option C:

      En(Li2+)=−19.62×10−16 J\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{Li}^{2+}\right)=-19.62 \times 10^{-16} \mathrm{~J};r_{n}\left(\mathrm{Li}^{2+}\right)=17.6 \mathrm{pm}$$\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{He}^{+}\right)=-8.72 \times 10^{-16} \mathrm{~J} ;$$\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{He}^{+}\right)=26.4 \mathrm{pm}

    4. Option D:

      En(Li2+)=−8.72×10−16 J\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{Li}^{2+}\right)=-8.72 \times 10^{-16} \mathrm{~J};r_{n}\left(\mathrm{Li}^{2+}\right)=17.6 \mathrm{pm}$$\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{He}^{+}\right)=-19.62 \times 10^{-16} \mathrm{~J};rn(He+)=17.6pm\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{He}^{+}\right)=17.6 \mathrm{pm}

  47. Question 47Chemistry· Coordination Compounds

    Which of the following are paramagnetic?

    A. [NiCl4]2−\left[\mathrm{NiCl}_{4}\right]^{2-}

    B. Ni(CO)4\mathrm{Ni}(\mathrm{CO})_{4}

    C. [Ni(CN)4]2−\left[\mathrm{Ni}(\mathrm{CN})_{4}\right]^{2-}

    D. [Ni(H2O)6]2+\left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right)_{6}\right]^{2+}

    E. Ni(PPh3)4\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{PPh}_{3}\right)_{4}

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A and C only

    2. Option B:

      B and E only

    3. Option C:

      A and D only

    4. Option D:

      A, D and E only

  48. Question 48Chemistry· p-Block Elements (Group 15-18)

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.

    Statement II : Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    2. Option B:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

  49. Question 49Chemistry· Periodicity of Elements and Periodic Properties

    Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?

    A. [Ne]3s1[\text{Ne}]3s^1

    B. [Ar]3d84s2[\text{Ar}]3d^8 4s^2

    C. [Kr]4d105s25p5[\text{Kr}]4d^{10} 5s^2 5p^5

    D. [Ar]3d104s1[\text{Ar}]3d^{10} 4s^1

    E. [Rn]5f06d77s2[\text{Rn}]5f^0 6d^7 7s^2

    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

    1. Option A:

      B and E only

    2. Option B:

      A and C only

    3. Option C:

      D and E only

    4. Option D:

      A, C and D only

  50. Question 50Chemistry· Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry (Mole Concept) + Stoichiometry

    Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following ?

    1. Option A:

      Law of conservation of mass

    2. Option B:

      Law of constant proportion

    3. Option C:

      Law of multiple proportion

    4. Option D:

      Law of gaseous volume

  51. Question 51Chemistry· Redox Reactions

    Consider the following compounds:

    KO‾2,H2O‾2\underline{\mathrm{KO}}_{2}, \mathrm{H}_{2} \underline{\mathrm{O}}_{2} and H2SO‾4\mathrm{H}_{2} \underline{\mathrm{SO}}_{4}.

    The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,

    1. Option A:

      +1,−1+1,-1, and +6

    2. Option B:

      +2,−2+2,-2, and +6

    3. Option C:

      +1,−2+1,-2, and +4

    4. Option D:

      +4,−4+4,-4, and +6

  52. Question 52Chemistry· Chemical Kinetics

    If the half-life ( t1/2\mathrm{t}_{1 / 2} ) for a first order reaction is 1 minutes, then the time required for 99.9%99.9\% completion of the reaction is closest to:

    1. Option A:

      2 minutes

    2. Option B:

      4 minutes

    3. Option C:

      5 minutes

    4. Option D:

      10 minutes

  53. Question 53Chemistry· Coordination Compounds

    The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is,

    A. [Co(NH3)6]3+\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right)_{6}\right]^{3+}

    B. [Co(CN)6]3−\left[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{CN})_{6}\right]^{3-}

    C. [Cu(H2O)4]2+\left[\mathrm{Cu}\left(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right)_{4}\right]^{2+}

    D. [Ti(H2O)6]3+\left[\mathrm{Ti}\left(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right)_{6}\right]^{3+}

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      B << D << A << C

    2. Option B:

      B << A << D << C

    3. Option C:

      C << D << A << B

    4. Option D:

      C << A << D << B

  54. Question 54Chemistry· Isomerism

    Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers ?

    1. Option A:

      Pent-1-ene

    2. Option B:

      2-Methylhex-2-ene

    3. Option C:

      1, 1-Dimethylcyclopropane

    4. Option D:

      1, 2-Dimethylcyclohexane

  55. Question 55Chemistry· Ionic Equilibrium

    Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values Ka1, Ka2\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{1}}, \mathrm{~K}_{\mathrm{a}_{2}} and Ka3\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{3}}, respectively,

    While K is the overall ionization constant. Which of the following statements are true ?

    A. log⁡K=log⁡Ka1+log⁡Ka2+log⁡Ka3\log \mathrm{K}=\log \mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{1}}+\log \mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{2}}+\log \mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{3}}

    B. H3PO4\mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{PO}_{4} is a stronger acid than H2PO4−\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{PO}_{4}^{-}and HPO42−\mathrm{HPO}_{4}^{2-}

    C. Ka1>Ka2>Ka3\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{1}}>\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{2}}>\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{3}}

    D. Ka1=Ka3+Ka22\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{3}}+\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_{2}}}{2}

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A and B only

    2. Option B:

      A and C only

    3. Option C:

      B, C and D only

    4. Option D:

      A, B and C only

  56. Question 56Chemistry· Electrochemistry

    If the molar conductivity ( Λm\Lambda_{\mathrm{m}} ) of a 0.050 mol L−10.050 \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{~L}^{-1} solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S cm2 mol−190 \mathrm{~S} \mathrm{~cm}^{2} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be [Assume Λ+∘=349.6 S cm2 mol−1\Lambda_{+}^{\circ}=349.6 \mathrm{~S} \mathrm{~cm}^{2} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} and Λ−∘=50.4 S cm2 mol−1\Lambda_{-}^{\circ}=50.4 \mathrm{~S} \mathrm{~cm}^{2} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}.]

    1. Option A:

      0.115

    2. Option B:

      0.125

    3. Option C:

      0.225

    4. Option D:

      0.215

  57. Question 57Chemistry· Chemical Bonding

    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II: Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable. Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    2. Option B:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are false

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is false but Statement II are true

  58. Question 58Chemistry· Coordination Compounds

    Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?

    1. Option A:

      [Co(NH3)3Cl3]\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right)_{3} \mathrm{Cl}_{3}\right]

    2. Option B:

      [Co(NHX3)X4ClX2]Cl\ce{[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl}

    3. Option C:

      [Co(NH3)6]Cl3\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right)_{6}\right] \mathrm{Cl}_{3}

    4. Option D:

      [Co(NHX3)X5Cl]ClX2\ce{[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2}

  59. Question 59Chemistry· Chemical Bonding

    Match List - I with List - II

    List-IList-II
    A. XeO3\mathrm{XeO}_{3}I. sp3ds p^{3} d, linear
    B. XeF2\mathrm{XeF}_{2}II. sp3\mathrm{sp}^{3}; pyramidal
    C. XeOF4\mathrm{XeOF}_{4}III. sp3 d3 \mathrm{sp}^{3} \mathrm{~d}^{3}; distorted octahedral
    D. XeF6\mathrm{XeF}_{6}IV. sp3d2s p^{3} d^{2}; square pyramidal

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    2. Option B:

      A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

    3. Option C:

      A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

    4. Option D:

      A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

  60. Question 60Chemistry· Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry

    C(s)+2H2( g)→CH4( g);ΔH=−74.8 kJ mol−1\mathrm{C}(\mathrm{s})+2 \mathrm{H}_{2}(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_{4}(\mathrm{~g}) ; \Delta \mathrm{H}=-74.8 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}

    Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction?

    [R→[\mathrm{R} \rightarrow reactants; P→\mathrm{P} \rightarrow products]

    1. Option A:
      Option A figure
    2. Option B:
      Option B figure
    3. Option C:
      Option C figure
    4. Option D:
      Option D figure
  61. Question 61Chemistry· Solutions and Colligative Properties

    Match List - I with List - II

    List-I (Example)List-II (Type of Solution)
    A. HumidityI. Solid in solid
    B. AlloysII. Liquid in gas
    C. AmalgamsIII. Solid in gas
    D. SmokeIV. Liquid in solid

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    2. Option B:

      A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    3. Option C:

      A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    4. Option D:

      A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

  62. Question 62Chemistry· Nitrogen Containing Organic Compounds

    The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is :

    1. Option A:

      N-methylaniline > benzenamine > ethanamine > N-ethylethanamine

    2. Option B:

      N- ethylethanamine > ethanamine > benzenamine > N- methylanili

    3. Option C:

      N- ethylethanamine > ethanamine >N - methylaniline > benzenamine

    4. Option D:

      benzenamine >> ethanamine >> N-methylaniline > N-ethylethanamine

  63. Question 63Chemistry· Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry (Mole Concept) + Stoichiometry

    Among the following choose the ones with equal number of atoms.

    A. 212 g of Na2CO3( s)\mathrm{Na}_{2} \mathrm{CO}_{3}(\mathrm{~s}) [molar mass =106 g=106 \mathrm{~g} ]

    B. 248 g of Na2O(s)\mathrm{Na}_{2} \mathrm{O}(\mathrm{s}) [molar mass =62 g=62 \mathrm{~g} ]

    C. 240 g of NaOH(s)\mathrm{NaOH}(\mathrm{s}) [molar mass =40 g=40 \mathrm{~g} ]

    D. 12 g of H2( g)\mathrm{H}_{2}(\mathrm{~g}) [molar mass =2 g=2 \mathrm{~g} ]

    E. 220 g of CO2( g)\mathrm{CO}_{2}(\mathrm{~g}) [molar mass =44 g=44 \mathrm{~g} ]

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A, B and C only

    2. Option B:

      A, B and D only

    3. Option C:

      B, C and D only

    4. Option D:

      B, D and E only

  64. Question 64Chemistry· Biomolecules

    Match List - I with List - II

    List-I (Name of the Vitamin)List-II (Deficiency disease)
    A. Vitamin B12\mathrm{B}_{12}I. Cheilosis
    B. Vitamin DII. Convulsions
    C. Vitamin B2\mathrm{B}_{2}III. Rickets
    D. Vitamin B6\mathrm{B}_{6}IV. Pernicious anaemia

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    2. Option B:

      A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    3. Option C:

      A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    4. Option D:

      A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  65. Question 65Chemistry· Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives

    The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is :-

    1. Option A:

      (CH3)3CCOOH>(CH3)2CHCOOH>CH3COOH\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{3} \mathrm{CCOOH}>\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{2} \mathrm{CHCOOH}>\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH} >HCOOH>\mathrm{HCOOH}

    2. Option B:

      CH3COOH>(CH3)2CHCOOH>(CH3)3CCOOH\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}>\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{2} \mathrm{CHCOOH}>\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{3} \mathrm{CCOOH} >HCOOH>\mathrm{HCOOH}

    3. Option C:

      HCOOH>CH3COOH>(CH3)2CHCOOH\mathrm{HCOOH}>\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}>\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{2} \mathrm{CHCOOH} >(CH3)3CCOOH>\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{3} \mathrm{CCOOH}

    4. Option D:

      HCOOH>(CH3)3CCOOH>(CH3)2CHCOOH\mathrm{HCOOH}>\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{3} \mathrm{CCOOH}>\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{2} \mathrm{CHCOOH} >CH3COOH>\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}

  66. Question 66Chemistry· d and f Block Elements

    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II:

    Statement I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.

    Statement II: The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr2+\mathrm{Cr}^{2+} ion (Z=24)(\mathrm{Z}=24) is the same as that of a Nd3+\mathrm{Nd}^{3+} ion ( Z=60Z=60 ).

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. Option A:

      Both Statements I and Statement II are true

    2. Option B:

      Both Statement I and Statements II are false

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  67. Question 67Chemistry· Solid State

    Match List-I with List-II

    List-I (Mixture)List-II (Method of Separation)
    A. CHCl3+C6H5NH2\mathrm{CHCl}_{3}+\mathrm{C}_{6} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{NH}_{2}I. Distillation under reduced pressure
    B. Crude oil in petroleum industryII. Steam distillation
    C. Glycerol from spent-lyeIII. Fractional distillation
    D. Aniline-waterIV. Simple distillation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

    1. Option A:

      A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    2. Option B:

      A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    3. Option C:

      A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    4. Option D:

      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

  68. Question 68Chemistry· Chemical Equilibrium

    For the reaction A(g)⇌2 B( g)\mathrm{A}(\mathrm{g}) \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{~B}(\mathrm{~g}), the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate

    constant by a factor of 2500 , at 1000 K . [Given : R=0.0831 L atm mol−1 K−1\mathrm{R}=0.0831 \mathrm{~L} \mathrm{~atm} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \mathrm{~K}^{-1} ] KP\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{P}} for the reaction

    at 1000 K is

    1. Option A:

      83.1

    2. Option B:

      2.077×1052.077 \times 10^{5}

    3. Option C:

      0.033

    4. Option D:

      0.021

  69. Question 69Chemistry· Nitrogen Containing Organic Compounds

    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II:

    Statement I: Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273−278 K273-278 \mathrm{~K}. It decomposes easily in the dry state.

    Statement II: Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. Option A:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    2. Option B:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

  70. Question 70Chemistry· Alkyl and Aryl Halides

    How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound? CHX3−CH(CHX3)−CHX2−CHX3\ce{CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH3}

    1. Option A:

      2

    2. Option B:

      3

    3. Option C:

      5

    4. Option D:

      6

  71. Question 71Chemistry· General Organic Chemistry

    Among the given compound I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of C−H\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{H} bond marked with * is :-

    Question 71 figure
    1. Option A:

      II >> I >> III

    2. Option B:

      I >> II >> III

    3. Option C:

      III >> II >> I

    4. Option D:

      II >> III >> I

  72. Question 72Chemistry· Aromatic Compounds

    Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?

    1. Option A:
      Option A figure
    2. Option B:
      Option B figure
    3. Option C:
      Option C figure
    4. Option D:
      Option D figure
  73. Question 73Chemistry· Solutions and Colligative Properties

    Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?

    1. Option A:

      0.01 M Urea

    2. Option B:

      0.01MKNO30.01 \mathrm{M} \mathrm{KNO}_{3}

    3. Option C:

      0.01MNa2SO40.01 \mathrm{M} \mathrm{Na}_{2} \mathrm{SO}_{4}

    4. Option D:

      0.015MC6H12O60.015 \mathrm{M} \mathrm{C}_{6} \mathrm{H}_{12} \mathrm{O}_{6}

  74. Question 74Chemistry· Coordination Compounds

    Match List-I with List-II

    List-IList-II
    A. Haber processI. Fe catalyst
    B. Wacker oxidationII. PdCl2\mathrm{PdCl}_{2}
    C. Wilkinson catalystIII. [(PPh3)3RhCl]\left[\left(\mathrm{PPh}_{3}\right)_{3} \mathrm{RhCl}\right]
    D. Ziegler catalystIV. TiCl4\mathrm{TiCl}_{4} with Al(CH3)3\mathrm{Al}\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{3}

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    2. Option B:

      A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    3. Option C:

      A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    4. Option D:

      A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

  75. Question 75Chemistry· Solutions and Colligative Properties

    5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution ?

    1. Option A:

      The solution shows positive deviation.

    2. Option B:

      The solution shows negative deviation.

    3. Option C:

      The solution is ideal.

    4. Option D:

      The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.

  76. Question 76Chemistry· Biomolecules

    Sugar 'X' A. is found in honey. B. is a keto sugar. C. exists in α\alpha and β\beta - anomeric forms. D. is laevorotatory. 'X' is :

    1. Option A:

      D-Glucose

    2. Option B:

      D-Fructose

    3. Option C:

      Maltose

    4. Option D:

      Sucrose

  77. Question 77Chemistry· Alkyl and Aryl Halides

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

    Assertion (A):

    structure

    undergoes SN_\mathrm{N}2 reaction faster than

    structure

    Reason (R): Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. Option A:

      Both A\mathbf{A} and R\mathbf{R} are true and R\mathbf{R} is the correct explanation of A\mathbf{A}.

    2. Option B:

      Both A\mathbf{A} and R\mathbf{R} are true but R\mathbf{R} is not the correct explanation of A\mathbf{A}.

    3. Option C:

      A\mathbf{A} is true but R\mathbf{R} is false

    4. Option D:

      A\mathbf{A} is false but R\mathbf{R} is true

  78. Question 78Chemistry· Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry

    The standard heat of formation, in kcal/mol\mathrm{kcal} / \mathrm{mol} of Ba2+\mathrm{Ba}^{2+} is

    [Given : standard heat of formation of SO42−\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-} ion (aq) =−216kcal/mol=-216 \mathrm{kcal} / \mathrm{mol}, Standard heat of crystallisation of

    BaSO4( s)=−4.5kcal/mol\mathrm{BaSO}_{4}(\mathrm{~s})=-4.5 \mathrm{kcal} / \mathrm{mol}, standard heat of formation of BaSO4( s)=−349kcal/mol]\left.\mathrm{BaSO}_{4}(\mathrm{~s})=-349 \mathrm{kcal} / \mathrm{mol}\right]

    1. Option A:

      −128.5-128.5

    2. Option B:

      −133.0-133.0

    3. Option C:

      +133.0+133.0

    4. Option D:

      +220.5+220.5

  79. Question 79Chemistry· Isomerism

    Total number of possible isomers (both structural and stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula CX4HX8O\ce{C4H8O} is:

    1. Option A:

      6

    2. Option B:

      8

    3. Option C:

      10

    4. Option D:

      11

  80. Question 80Chemistry· Chemical Bonding

    Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned

    (A) H2O>NH3>CHCl3\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}>\mathrm{NH}_{3}>\mathrm{CHCl}_{3} - dipole moment

    (B) XeF4>XeO3>XeF2−\mathrm{XeF}_{4}>\mathrm{XeO}_{3}>\mathrm{XeF}_{2}- number of lone pairs on central atom

    (C) O−H>C−H>N−O−\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{H}>\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{H}>\mathrm{N}-\mathrm{O}- bond length

    (D) N2>O2>H2−\mathrm{N}_{2}>\mathrm{O}_{2}>\mathrm{H}_{2}- bond enthalpy

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A, D only

    2. Option B:

      B, D only

    3. Option C:

      A, C only

    4. Option D:

      B, C only

  81. Question 81Chemistry· Chemical Equilibrium

    Higher yield of NO in

    N2( g)+O2( g)⇌2NO(g)\mathrm{N}_{2}(\mathrm{~g})+\mathrm{O}_{2}(\mathrm{~g}) \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{NO}(\mathrm{g}) can be obtained at

    [ΔH\left[\Delta \mathrm{H}\right. of the reaction =+180.7 kJ mol−1]\left.=+180.7 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right]

    I. higher temperature

    II. lower temperature

    III. higher concentration of N2\mathrm{N}_{2}

    IV. higher concentration of O2\mathrm{O}_{2}

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      I, IV only

    2. Option B:

      II, IIIonly

    3. Option C:

      II, III, IV only

    4. Option D:

      I, III, IV only

  82. Question 82Chemistry· Chemical Kinetics

    If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s−10.03\ \text{s}^{-1}, how much time does it take for 7.2 mol L−17.2\ \text{mol L}^{-1} concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L−10.9\ \text{mol L}^{-1}? (Given: log⁡2=0.301\log 2 = 0.301)

    1. Option A:

      69.3 s

    2. Option B:

      23.1 s

    3. Option C:

      210 s

    4. Option D:

      21.0 s

  83. Question 83Chemistry· Practical Organic Chemistry

    Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to "Lassaigne's test" ?

    1. Option A:

      Na+C+N→ΔNaCN\mathrm{Na}+\mathrm{C}+\mathrm{N} \xrightarrow[\Delta]{ } \mathrm{NaCN}

    2. Option B:

      2Na+S⟶Na2 S2 \mathrm{Na}+\mathrm{S} \longrightarrow \mathrm{Na}_{2} \mathrm{~S}

    3. Option C:

      Na+X⟶+NaX\mathrm{Na}+\mathrm{X} \longrightarrow+\mathrm{NaX}

    4. Option D:

      2CuO+C→Δ2Cu+CO22 \mathrm{CuO}+\mathrm{C} \xrightarrow[\Delta]{ } 2 \mathrm{Cu}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}

  84. Question 84Botany· Respiration in Plants

    The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

    1. Option A:

      Cytochrome bc1bc_1

    2. Option B:

      Succinate dehydrogenase

    3. Option C:

      Cytochrome c oxidase

    4. Option D:

      NADH dehydrogenase

  85. Question 85Zoology· Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation:

    1. Option A:

      N2N^2

    2. Option B:

      2n2^n

    3. Option C:

      2n+12^n + 1

    4. Option D:

      2N22 N^2

  86. Question 86Zoology· Reproductive Health

    What are the potential drawbacks of adopting the IVF method?

    A. High fatality risk to mother

    B. Expensive instruments and reagents

    C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors

    D. Less adoption of orphans

    E. Not available in India

    F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      B, D, F only

    2. Option B:

      A, C, D, F only

    3. Option C:

      A, B, C, D only

    4. Option D:

      A, B, C, E, F only

  87. Question 87Zoology· Structural Organisation in Animals

    What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?

    1. Option A:

      Aorta

    2. Option B:

      Pulmonary artery

    3. Option C:

      Pulmonary vein

    4. Option D:

      Vena cava

  88. Question 88Botany· The Living World

    Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

    1. Option A:

      Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

    2. Option B:

      Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.

    3. Option C:

      Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

    4. Option D:

      Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.

  89. Question 89Zoology· Evolution

    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II:

    Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.

    Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. Option A:

      Both statement I and statement II are correct.

    2. Option B:

      Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

  90. Question 90Botany· Organisms and Populations

    Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

    1. Option A:

      Commensalism

    2. Option B:

      Mutualism

    3. Option C:

      Predation

    4. Option D:

      Amensalism

  91. Question 91Botany· Cell: The Unit of Life

    From the statements given below choose the correct option :

    A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80 S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.

    B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.

    C. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 40 S while that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .

    D. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 20 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 20 S .

    E. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 30 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .

    1. Option A:

      A, B, C are true

    2. Option B:

      A, B, D are true

    3. Option C:

      A, B, E are true

    4. Option D:

      B, D, E are true

  92. Question 92Botany· Biodiversity and Conservation

    Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

    1. Option A:

      National park

    2. Option B:

      Wildlife Sanctuary

    3. Option C:

      Zoos and botanical gardens

    4. Option D:

      Protected areas

  93. Question 93Botany· Ecosystem

    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II:

    Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.

    Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. Option A:

      Both statement I and statement II are correct.

    2. Option B:

      Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

  94. Question 94Zoology· Breathing and Exchange of Gases

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I

    List-IList-II
    A. EmphysemaI. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++Ca^{++} in body fluid.
    B. Angina PectorisII. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface
    C. GlomerulonephritisIII. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle
    D. TetanyIV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    2. Option B:

      A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    3. Option C:

      A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    4. Option D:

      A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  95. Question 95Botany· Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

    Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.

    Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. Option A:

      Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

    2. Option B:

      Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

    3. Option C:

      A is true but R is false.

    4. Option D:

      A is false but R is true.

  96. Question 96Botany· Microbes in Human Welfare

    Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

    1. Option A:

      Whisky

    2. Option B:

      Brandy

    3. Option C:

      Beer

    4. Option D:

      Rum

  97. Question 97Botany· Morphology of Flowering Plants

    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II:

    Statement I: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary.

    Statement II: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. Option A:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

    2. Option B:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

  98. Question 98Zoology· Biotechnology and its Applications

    Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

    1. Option A:

      Curd production

    2. Option B:

      Ethanol production

    3. Option C:

      Liver disease treatment

    4. Option D:

      Removing clots from blood vessels

  99. Question 99Botany· Molecular basis of Inheritance

    Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

    1. Option A:

      Chromosome X

    2. Option B:

      Chromosome Y

    3. Option C:

      Chromosome 1

    4. Option D:

      Chromosome 10

  100. Question 100Zoology· Animal Kingdom

    Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

    1. Option A:

      First and Second digit of fore limb

    2. Option B:

      First digit of hind limb

    3. Option C:

      Second digit of fore limb

    4. Option D:

      First digit of the fore limb

  101. Question 101Botany· Plant Growth and Development

    Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

    1. Option A:

      Ethylene

    2. Option B:

      Abscisic acid

    3. Option C:

      Gibberellin

    4. Option D:

      Cytokinin

  102. Question 102Zoology· Animal Kingdom

    While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher performed a histological examination of the adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall, but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelom of that animal?

    1. Option A:

      Acoelomate

    2. Option B:

      Pseudocoelomate

    3. Option C:

      Schizocoelomate

    4. Option D:

      Spongocoelomate

  103. Question 103Zoology· Human Reproduction

    Match List-I with List-II

    List-IList-II
    A. HeadI. Enzymes
    B. Middle pieceII. Sperm motility
    C. AcrosomeIII. Energy
    D. TailIV. Genetic material

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    2. Option B:

      A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    3. Option C:

      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    4. Option D:

      A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

  104. Question 104Botany· Plant Kingdom

    Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.

    A. Prothallus stage

    B. Meiosis in spore mother cells

    C. Fertilisation

    D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.

    E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      B, A, D, E, C

    2. Option B:

      B, A, E, C, D

    3. Option C:

      D, E, C, A, B

    4. Option D:

      E,D,C,B,A

  105. Question 105Zoology· Body Fluids and Circulation

    Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:

    A. Nodal tissue

    B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata

    C. Adrenal medullary hormones

    D. Adrenal cortical hormones

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A, B and C Only

    2. Option B:

      A, B, C and D

    3. Option C:

      A, C and D Only

    4. Option D:

      A, B and D Only

  106. Question 106Botany· Biological Classification

    Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?

    A. Azotobacter

    B. Oscillatoria

    C. Anabaena

    D. Volvox

    E. Nostoc

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A only

    2. Option B:

      D only

    3. Option C:

      B only

    4. Option D:

      E only

  107. Question 107Zoology· Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    In the plasmid represented above, a foreign piece of DNA is inserted at the EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

    Question 107 figure
    1. Option A:

      Using a medium plate containing ampicillin and tetracycline.

    2. Option B:

      Blue color colonies will be selected

    3. Option C:

      White color colonies will be selected.

    4. Option D:

      Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.

  108. Question 108Zoology· Biotechnology and its Applications

    Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

    1. Option A:

      Bacterium

    2. Option B:

      Yeast

    3. Option C:

      Virus

    4. Option D:

      Phage

  109. Question 109Zoology· Biomolecules

    Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction : S−G+S#→S+S#−G\text{S} - \text{G} + \text{S}^\# \to \text{S} + \text{S}^\# - \text{G} Where, G→a group other than hydrogen\text{G} \to \text{a group other than hydrogen} S→a substrate\quad \quad \text{S} \to \text{a substrate} S#→another substrate\quad \quad \text{S}^\# \to \text{another substrate}

    1. Option A:

      Hydrolase

    2. Option B:

      Lyase

    3. Option C:

      Transferase

    4. Option D:

      Ligase

  110. Question 110Botany· Anatomy of Flowering Plants

    Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

    1. Option A:

      Hypodermis is parenchymatous

    2. Option B:

      Vascular bundles are scattered.

    3. Option C:

      Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.

    4. Option D:

      Phloem parenchyma is absent.

  111. Question 111Botany· Plant Kingdom

    The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is

    A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.

    B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.

    C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.

    D. Formation of sporophyte.

    E. Release of antherozoids into water.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      D, E, A, C, B

    2. Option B:

      B, E, A, C, D

    3. Option C:

      B, E, A, D, C

    4. Option D:

      D, E, A, B, C

  112. Question 112Zoology· Human Health and Diseases

    Which are correct: A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs. B. Chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells. C. α-interferon activates the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour. D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers. E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      B and D only

    2. Option B:

      D and E only

    3. Option C:

      C and D only

    4. Option D:

      A and C only

  113. Question 113Botany· Cell: The Unit of Life

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - IList - II
    A. CentromereI. Mitochondrion
    B. CiliumII. Cell division
    C. CristaeIII. Cell movement
    D. Cell membraneIV. Phospholipid Bilayer

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    2. Option B:

      A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    3. Option C:

      A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

    4. Option D:

      A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

  114. Question 114Botany· Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

    Match List I with List II.

    List IList II
    A. Chlorophyll aI. Yellow-green
    B. Chlorophyll bII. Yellow
    C. XanthophyllsIII. Blue-green
    D. CarotenoidsIV. Yellow to Yellow-orange

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    1. Option A:

      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    2. Option B:

      A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    3. Option C:

      A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    4. Option D:

      A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

  115. Question 115Zoology· Human Reproduction

    Find the correct statements :

    A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.

    B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.

    C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.

    D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.

    E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A and E Only

    2. Option B:

      B and C Only

    3. Option C:

      B, C, D and E Only

    4. Option D:

      A, C, D and E Only

  116. Question 116Botany· Morphology of Flowering Plants

    In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called :

    1. Option A:

      Coleoptile

    2. Option B:

      Coleorhiza

    3. Option C:

      Integument

    4. Option D:

      Aleurone Layer

  117. Question 117Zoology· Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Identify the part of a bioreactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.

    Question 117 figure
    1. Option A:

      A

    2. Option B:

      B

    3. Option C:

      C

    4. Option D:

      D

  118. Question 118Botany· Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

    Assertion (A): A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.

    Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. Option A:

      Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

    2. Option B:

      Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

    3. Option C:

      A is true but R is false.

    4. Option D:

      A is false but R is true

  119. Question 119Botany· Biological Classification

    A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is :

    1. Option A:

      Mesosome

    2. Option B:

      Chromatophores

    3. Option C:

      Cristae

    4. Option D:

      Endoplasmic Reticulum

  120. Question 120Botany· Molecular basis of Inheritance

    Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?

    A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.

    B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.

    C. Addition of methyl group 5' end of hnRNA.

    D. Addition of adenine residues at 3 ' end of hnRNA.

    E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A, B, C only

    2. Option B:

      B, C, D only

    3. Option C:

      B, C, E only

    4. Option D:

      C, D, E only

  121. Question 121Botany· Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

    1. Option A:

      Mendelian inheritance pattern

    2. Option B:

      Non-mendelian inheritance pattern

    3. Option C:

      Autosomal dominant pattern

    4. Option D:

      X-linked recessive inheritance pattern

  122. Question 122Zoology· Biomolecules

    Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?

    1. Option A:

      RuBisCo

    2. Option B:

      Carbonic anhydrase

    3. Option C:

      Succinate dehydrogenase

    4. Option D:

      Catalase

  123. Question 123Botany· Biological Classification

    Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.

    A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.

    B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.

    C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.

    D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.

    E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A, C, E, B, D

    2. Option B:

      C, E, A, D, B

    3. Option C:

      A, C, E, D, B

    4. Option D:

      C, E, A, B, D

  124. Question 124Botany· Biodiversity and Conservation

    Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

    1. Option A:

      S.R. Kashyap

    2. Option B:

      Ramdeo Misra

    3. Option C:

      Ram Udar

    4. Option D:

      Birbal Sahni

  125. Question 125Botany· Molecular basis of Inheritance

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-IList-II
    A. Alfred Hershey and Martha ChaseI. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    B. EuchromatinII. Densely packed and dark-stained
    C. Frederick GriffithIII. Loosely packed and light-stained
    D. HeterochromatinIV. DNA as genetic material confirmation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    2. Option B:

      A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    3. Option C:

      A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    4. Option D:

      A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

  126. Question 126Zoology· Human Health and Diseases

    Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to: A. A mass of proliferating cells B. Rapid growth of cells C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue D. Those confined to the original location

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A, B only

    2. Option B:

      A, B, C only

    3. Option C:

      A, B, D only

    4. Option D:

      B, C, D only

  127. Question 127Zoology· Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II:

    Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.

    Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. Option A:

      Both statement I and statement II are correct

    2. Option B:

      Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

  128. Question 128Zoology· Biomolecules

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-IList-II
    A. AdenosineI. Nitrogen base
    B. Adenylic acidII. Nucleotide
    C. AdenineIII. Nucleoside
    D. AlanineIV. Amino acid

    Choose the option with all correct matches:

    1. Option A:

      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    2. Option B:

      A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    3. Option C:

      A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    4. Option D:

      A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

  129. Question 129Zoology· Human Reproduction

    Consider the following:

    A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.

    B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.

    C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.

    D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A and B are true

    2. Option B:

      A and C are true

    3. Option C:

      B and D are true

    4. Option D:

      B and C are true

  130. Question 130Zoology· Animal Kingdom

    All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

    1. Option A:

      Free living

    2. Option B:

      Endoparasite

    3. Option C:

      Symbiotic

    4. Option D:

      Ectoparasite

  131. Question 131Botany· Cell: The Unit of Life

    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.

    Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    2. Option B:

      Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

    3. Option C:

      A is true but R is false

    4. Option D:

      A is false but R is true

  132. Question 132Botany· Morphology of Flowering Plants

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-IList-II
    A. ScutellumI. Persistent nucellus
    B. Non-albuminous seedII. Cotyledon of Monocot seed
    C. EpiblastIII. Groundnut
    D. PerispermIV. Rudimentary cotyledon

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    1. Option A:

      A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    2. Option B:

      A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    3. Option C:

      A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    4. Option D:

      A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

  133. Question 133Zoology· Animal Kingdom

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

    Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.

    Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    2. Option B:

      Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

    3. Option C:

      A is true but R is false

    4. Option D:

      A is false but R is true

  134. Question 134Zoology· Human Health and Diseases

    Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

    1. Option A:

      Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.

    2. Option B:

      The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds

    3. Option C:

      Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.

    4. Option D:

      Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.

  135. Question 135Botany· Molecular basis of Inheritance

    Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

    1. Option A:

      Complementary dsRNA

    2. Option B:

      Inhibitory ssRNA

    3. Option C:

      Complementary tRNA

    4. Option D:

      Non-complementary ssRNA

  136. Question 136Botany· Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

    1. Option A:

      Phenotypic ratio - 1:2:1

    2. Option B:

      Phenotypic ratio - 3:1

    3. Option C:

      Phenotypic ratio-9:3:3:1

    4. Option D:

      Phenotypic ratio - 9:7

  137. Question 137Botany· Cell: The Unit of Life

    Histones are enriched with -

    1. Option A:

      Lysine & Arginine

    2. Option B:

      Leucine & Lysine

    3. Option C:

      Phenylalanine & Leucine

    4. Option D:

      Phenylalanine & Arginine

  138. Question 138Zoology· Human Reproduction

    The first menstruation is called:

    1. Option A:

      Menopause

    2. Option B:

      Menarche

    3. Option C:

      Diapause

    4. Option D:

      Ovulation

  139. Question 139Zoology· Chemical Control and Coordination

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List-IList-II
    A. HeartI. Erythropoietin
    B. KidneyII. Aldosterone
    C. Gastro-intestinal tractIII. Atrial natriuretic factor
    D. Adrenal CortexIV. Secretin

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

    2. Option B:

      A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    3. Option C:

      A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

    4. Option D:

      A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

  140. Question 140Zoology· Biomolecules

    The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

    1. Option A:

      Cofactor

    2. Option B:

      Coenzyme

    3. Option C:

      Apoenzyme

    4. Option D:

      Prosthetic group

  141. Question 141Botany· Ecosystem

    Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an ecosystem?

    1. Option A:

      gm−2^{-2}

    2. Option B:

      KCalm−2^{-2}

    3. Option C:

      KCalm−3^{-3}

    4. Option D:

      (KCalm−2)yr−1^{-2} ) yr^{-1}

  142. Question 142Zoology· Evolution

    Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

    1. Option A:

      Analogy, convergent

    2. Option B:

      Homology, divergent

    3. Option C:

      Homology, convergent

    4. Option D:

      Analogy, divergent

  143. Question 143Botany· Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3F_3 generation.

    Question 143 figure
    1. Option A:

      1/4 1/4

    2. Option B:

      1/2 1/2

    3. Option C:

      1/8 1/8

    4. Option D:

      Zero

  144. Question 144Botany· Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

    Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.

    Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increase the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

    2. Option B:

      Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

    3. Option C:

      A is true but R is false.

    4. Option D:

      A is false but R is true.

  145. Question 145Botany· Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

    How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

    1. Option A:

      2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis

    2. Option B:

      1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis

    3. Option C:

      1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis

    4. Option D:

      No Meiosis and 3 Mitosis

  146. Question 146Botany· Morphology of Flowering Plants

    Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

    1. Option A:

      Petunia

    2. Option B:

      Datura

    3. Option C:

      Pea

    4. Option D:

      Chilli

  147. Question 147Zoology· Human Health and Diseases

    After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like:

    A. thymus

    B. bone marrow

    C. spleen

    D. lymph nodes

    E. Peyer's patches

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      B, C, D only

    2. Option B:

      A, B, C only

    3. Option C:

      E, A, B only

    4. Option D:

      C, D, E only

  148. Question 148Botany· Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II.

    Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.

    Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit a mutualistic relationship as the fig wasp completes its life cycle in the fig fruit and the fig fruit gets pollinated by the fig wasp.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    2. Option B:

      Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

  149. Question 149Botany· Cell Cycle and Cell Division

    What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

    1. Option A:

      To separate the chromosomes

    2. Option B:

      To synthesize new DNA

    3. Option C:

      To repair damaged DNA

    4. Option D:

      To regulate cell growth

  150. Question 150Botany· Plant Kingdom

    Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

    1. Option A:

      Seeds are enclosed in fruits.

    2. Option B:

      Seeds are naked.

    3. Option C:

      Seeds are absent.

    4. Option D:

      Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.

  151. Question 151Zoology· Chemical Control and Coordination

    Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones :

    A. It causes pupilary constriction

    B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone

    C. It causes piloerection

    D. It increases strength of heart contraction

    Choose the correct answer from the options/ given below:

    1. Option A:

      C and D Only

    2. Option B:

      B, C and D Only

    3. Option C:

      A, C and D Only

    4. Option D:

      D Only

  152. Question 152Zoology· Human Health and Diseases

    Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

    1. Option A:

      Human body will elicit strong immune response

    2. Option B:

      It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract

    3. Option C:

      Because of structural variation

    4. Option D:

      Its bioavailability will be increased

  153. Question 153Botany· Plant Kingdom

    Match List-I with List-II

    List-IList-II
    A. PteridophyteI. Salvia
    B. BryophyteII. Ginkgo
    C. AngiospermIII. Polytrichum
    D. GymnospermIV. Salvinia

    Choose the option with all correct matches:

    1. Option A:

      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    2. Option B:

      A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    3. Option C:

      A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    4. Option D:

      A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  154. Question 154Botany· Molecular basis of Inheritance

    Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides ?

    1. Option A:

      George Gamow

    2. Option B:

      Francis Crick

    3. Option C:

      Jacque Monod

    4. Option D:

      Franklin Stahl

  155. Question 155Botany· Biodiversity and Conservation

    Match List-I with List-II :

    List-IList-II
    A. The Evil QuartetI. Cryopreservation
    B. Ex situ conservationII. Alien species invasion
    C. Lantana camaraIII. Causes of biodiversity losses
    D. DodoIV. Extinction

    Choose the option with all correct matches:

    1. Option A:

      A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    2. Option B:

      A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    3. Option C:

      A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    4. Option D:

      A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

  156. Question 156Zoology· Chemical Control and Coordination

    Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

    1. Option A:

      Luteinizing hormone (LH)

    2. Option B:

      Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

    3. Option C:

      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

    4. Option D:

      Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

  157. Question 157Zoology· Animal Kingdom

    Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:

    A. Respiration and Locomotion

    B. Excretion and Locomotion

    C. Capture and transport of food

    D. Digestion and Respiration

    E. Digestion and Excretion

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A and B only

    2. Option B:

      A and C only

    3. Option C:

      B and C only

    4. Option D:

      B, D and E only

  158. Question 158Zoology· Human Health and Diseases

    Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body ?

    1. Option A:

      Acquired Immunity

    2. Option B:

      Innate Immunity

    3. Option C:

      Cell-mediated Immunity

    4. Option D:

      Humoral Immunity

  159. Question 159Botany· Plant Kingdom

    In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following ?

    1. Option A:

      Sexual reproduction

    2. Option B:

      Asexual reproduction

    3. Option C:

      Nutrient absorption

    4. Option D:

      Gaseous exchange

  160. Question 160Zoology· Structural Organisation in Animals

    In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :

    1. Option A:

      Liver and intestine

    2. Option B:

      Liver and kidney

    3. Option C:

      Kidney and intestine

    4. Option D:

      Kidney and lower part of body

  161. Question 161Botany· Ecosystem

    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II:

    Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers of consumers.

    Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd2^{nd} law of thermodynamics.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. Option A:

      Both statement-I and statement II are correct

    2. Option B:

      Both statement-I and statement II are incorrect

    3. Option C:

      Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect

    4. Option D:

      Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct

  162. Question 162Botany· Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

    Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

    1. Option A:

      It is active only in the dark.

    2. Option B:

      It has higher affinity of oxygen than carbon dioxide.

    3. Option C:

      It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.

    4. Option D:

      It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP

  163. Question 163Zoology· Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?

    A. Restriction enzymes

    B. DNA ligase

    C. DNA mutase

    D. DNA recombinase

    E. DNA polymerase

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      C and D only

    2. Option B:

      A and B only

    3. Option C:

      D and E only

    4. Option D:

      B and C only

  164. Question 164Botany· Plant Growth and Development

    Read the following statements on plant growth and development.

    A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.

    B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.

    C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for differentiation.

    D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.

    E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.

    Choose the option with all correct statements.

    1. Option A:

      A, B, C only

    2. Option B:

      A, C, E only

    3. Option C:

      A, D, E only

    4. Option D:

      B, D, E only

  165. Question 165Botany· Molecular basis of Inheritance

    Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

    1. Option A:

      α (alpha)

    2. Option B:

      σ (sigma)

    3. Option C:

      ρ (rho)

    4. Option D:

      γ (gamma)

  166. Question 166Zoology· Human Reproduction

    Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

    1. Option A:

      They are monozygotic twins.

    2. Option B:

      They are fraternal twins.

    3. Option C:

      They were conceived through in vitro fertilisation.

    4. Option D:

      They have 75% identical genetic content.

  167. Question 167Botany· Microbes in Human Welfare

    Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?

    A. Aspergillus niger

    B. Lactobacillus

    C. Trichoderma pulysporum

    D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

    E. Propionibacterium sharmanii

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A and B only

    2. Option B:

      A and C only

    3. Option C:

      C and D only

    4. Option D:

      C and E only

  168. Question 168Zoology· Chemical Control and Coordination

    Match List-I with List-II List-I

    List-IList-II
    A. ProgesteroneI. Pars intermedia
    B. RelaxinII. Ovary
    C. Melanocyte stimulating hormoneIII Adrenal Medulla
    D CatecholaminesIV. Corpus luteum

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Option A:

      A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    2. Option B:

      A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

    3. Option C:

      A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    4. Option D:

      A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

  169. Question 169Zoology· Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Statement I and the other is labelled as Statement II:

    The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method:

    Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.

    Statement II: The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. Option A:

      Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    2. Option B:

      Both Statement I and Statement II is incorrect

    3. Option C:

      Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    4. Option D:

      Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

  170. Question 170Botany· Organisms and Populations

    Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

    1. Option A:

      dNdt=r(K−NK)\frac{dN}{dt} = r \left(\frac{K-N}{K}\right)

    2. Option B:

      dNdt=rN(K−NK)\frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left(\frac{K-N}{K}\right)

    3. Option C:

      dNdt=rN(N−KN)\frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left(\frac{N-K}{N}\right)

    4. Option D:

      dNdt=N(r−KK)\frac{dN}{dt} = N \left(\frac{r-K}{K}\right)

Stuck on one of these?

Practise questions like them — free, with a tutor that explains every step.