Mathematics · Inverse Trigonometric Functions

JEE Advanced 2018 — Paper 2 — Question 28

For any positive integer nn, define fn:(0,∞)→Rf_{n}:(0, \infty) \rightarrow R as fn(x)=∑j=1ntan⁡−1(11+(x+j)(x+j−1)) for all x∈(0,∞)f_{n}(x)=\sum_{j=1}^{n} \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+(x+j)(x+j-1)}\right) \text { for all } x \in(0, \infty) (Here, the inverse trigonometric function tan⁡−1x\tan ^{-1} \mathrm{x} assumes values in (−π2,π2)\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) ) Then, which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE ?

  1. Option A:

    ∑j=15tan⁡2(fj(0))=55\sum_{j=1}^{5} \tan ^{2}\left(f_{j}(0)\right)=55

  2. Option B:

    ∑j=110(1+fj′(0))sec⁡2(fj(0))=10\quad \sum_{j=1}^{10}\left(1+f_{j}^{\prime}(0)\right) \sec ^{2}\left(f_{j}(0)\right)=10

  3. Option C:

    For any fixed positive integer n,lim⁡x→∞tan⁡(fn(x))=1nn, \lim _{x \rightarrow \infty} \tan \left(f_{n}(x)\right)=\frac{1}{n}

  4. Option D:

    For any fixed positive integer n,lim⁡x→∞sec⁡2(fn(x))=1n, \lim _{x \rightarrow \infty} \sec ^{2}\left(f_{n}(x)\right)=1

    Correct

Answer: D

Step-by-step solution

Use the identity tan⁡−1(a)−tan⁡−1(b)=tan⁡−1(a−b1+ab)\tan^{-1}(a)-\tan^{-1}(b)=\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{a-b}{1+ab}\right). For each term, set a=x+ja=x+j and b=x+j−1b=x+j-1, so tan⁡−1(x+j)−tan⁡−1(x+j−1)=tan⁡−1(11+(x+j)(x+j−1))\tan^{-1}(x+j)-\tan^{-1}(x+j-1)=\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+(x+j)(x+j-1)}\right). The sum telescopes: fn(x)=∑j=1n[tan⁡−1(x+j)−tan⁡−1(x+j−1)]=tan⁡−1(x+n)−tan⁡−1(x)f_n(x)=\sum_{j=1}^n [\tan^{-1}(x+j)-\tan^{-1}(x+j-1)] = \tan^{-1}(x+n)-\tan^{-1}(x). Further, tan⁡(fn(x))=(x+n)−x1+x(x+n)=n1+x(x+n)\tan(f_n(x)) = \frac{(x+n)-x}{1+x(x+n)} = \frac{n}{1+x(x+n)}. Check options: For A and B, x=0x=0 is not in the domain (0,∞)(0,\infty), so fj(0)f_j(0) is not defined. Hence A and B are false. For C, lim⁡x→∞tan⁡(fn(x))=lim⁡x→∞n1+x(x+n)=0\lim_{x\to\infty} \tan(f_n(x)) = \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{n}{1+x(x+n)} = 0, not 1n\frac{1}{n}. So C is false. For D, sec⁡2(fn(x))=1+tan⁡2(fn(x))=1+(n1+x(x+n))2\sec^2(f_n(x)) = 1 + \tan^2(f_n(x)) = 1 + \left(\frac{n}{1+x(x+n)}\right)^2. As x→∞x\to\infty, tan⁡2(fn(x))→0\tan^2(f_n(x)) \to 0, so sec⁡2(fn(x))→1\sec^2(f_n(x)) \to 1. Hence D is true.

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Exam
JEE Advanced 2018
Paper
Paper 2
Subject
Mathematics
Chapter
Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Topic
Summation of Series involving ITFs
For any positive integer n , define f n :(0, ∞) rightarrow R as f n… | JEE Advanced 2018 PYQ with Solution · DhiX AI